LET WOMEN KEEP SILENT IN THE CHURCHES
By W. Frank Walton
"The women are to keep silent in the churches; for
they are not permitted to speak, but are to subject themselves,
just as the Law also says" (1 Corinthians 14:34). What is the
silence Paul enjoins upon women? Is it absolute in every
situation or is it qualified in a certain situation? This
article will show that women keeping silent is in leading the
assembly. The silence is qualified. She is not to speak beyond
the point of being in subjection to male leadership.
"Keep silent" (Greek, sigao) means absolute
silence, to hold one's peace, to not make a sound. Yet, women
are commanded to sing in the assembly, thereby teaching others
(Col. 3:16; Eph. 5:19). Also, if a woman desires to obey the
gospel, she is to make "the good confession" (cf. Rom. 10:9-10),
which may be in "the presence of many witnesses" (1 Tim. 6:12).
If "keep silent in the churches" is absolutely unqualified, a
woman could not sing, nor confess Christ, or even verbally
correct her children in the assembly. In Acts 5:1-11, we have an
example of Peter asking Sapphira to answer a question, thereby
speaking, before an assembly (5:8). (Young men in the audience
or assembly came forward to bury both Annanias and Sapphira
after their fateful lie). Such speaking before an assembly was
done while being in subjection to male leadership.
1. Defined Within Context. The context of 1
Corinthians 12-14 is the exercise of miraculous gifts before the
whole assembly. "Speak" (14:34) is used in this context of
addressing, thereby leading, the assembly (cf. 14:27,29). A male
tongue speaker, without an interpreter, and a male prophet,
waiting his turn, were both enjoined to "keep silent" (vv.
28,30). They were forbidden to address the assembly in the
specified situation. "It is a shame for a woman to speak in
church" (1 Cor. 14:35) refers to the specific disruptive example
at Corinth. It means women should not speak that disrupts,
controls or leads the assembly.
2. A Qualified Prohibition. "NOT permitted to
speak, BUT are to subject themselves" means the NOT phrase is
qualified (or modified) by the BUT phrase. We must not put a
"period" in the middle of Paul's thought. We must not assert a
full, absolute negative when God has revealed a qualified
negative. The BUT clause modifies the NOT clause.
There are several "NOT...BUT" passages in the Bible
that are relative, not absolute, prohibitions (cf. Matt.
6:19-20). For example, Jesus said, "do NOT work for the food
that perishes, BUT for the food that endures to everlasting
life" (John 6:27). If the NOT clause was not qualified, then it
would be wrong to work. Jesus says one must not work for food to
the neglect of working for spiritual food. So, "do not work" is
a qualified prohibition, relative to what the BUT clause
enjoins. In another example, Paul said "Christ did NOT send me
to baptize BUT to preach the gospel" (1 Cor. 1:17). Yet, Paul
said he did baptize a few people (1 Cor. 1:14,16). Did Paul
disobey Christ? No, since baptism in context is an act where
some thought they were baptized into Paul's name, contrary to
pointing people to Christ. Yet, in due course of preaching, Paul
may have had to baptize some people personally into Christ.
Another example of the "NOT...BUT" contrast is in 1 Peter 3:3:
"Let NOT your adornment be external -- braiding the hair, and
wearing gold jewelry, or putting on dresses, BUT let it be the
hidden person of the heart." Did Peter absolutely prohibit women
from wearing dresses? I hope not! It is a qualified prohibition.
She is not to be concerned with outward adornment to the neglect
of her inner spiritual character.
3. The Women Causing Problems. "If they desire to
learn anything, let them ask their own husbands at home; for it
is improper for a woman to speak in church" (1 Corinthians
14:35). Paul had in mind a certain group of women with husbands.
It is most probable that these were the wives of the prophets.
The wives were adding to the "confusion" in the assembly (v.
33). They were probably "asking questions" while their husband
was prophesying, which was an opening for these "liberated
women" to disrupt and direct the assembly.
4. The Underlying Scriptural Principle. Note that
Paul's divine principle is nothing new. The underlying principle
of female subjection is "just as the Law also says." What verse
in the OT does Paul have in mind? Since he refers to wives and
husbands, he must be referencing God's admonition to Eve: "your
desire shall be for your husband and he shall rule over you"
(Gen. 3:16). The brazen prophets' wives were speaking before the
church, probably interrupting their husband, thereby indicating
they were not in subjection.
In the marriage relationship, as well as in the
church, God has ordained male leadership and female followship.
Men have the responsibility to lead and females have the
responsibility to submit. God the Father is over Christ, Christ
is over man, and man is over woman (1 Cor. 11:3ff). A woman is
not to usurp authority over or teach over a man (1 Tim.
2:11-12). Priscilla, in conjunction with her husband Aquila,
helped to teach Apollos (Acts 18:26). A woman teaches when she
sings, but she is not teaching "over" a man. A woman may make a
comment in a Bible class, but she is not to speak beyond
subjection to the male teacher (i.e. dominate or control the
class).
Women may take the lead in teaching classes of
children or other women (cf. Titus 2:3-4). Women have much
God-glorifying work to do in their sphere designated by God. The
silence Paul enjoins on women in 1 Cor. 14:34f is when women
attempt to disrupt God's delegation of authority and male
leadership by taking the lead in the assembly.
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